When we evaluate the limit of (1+1/(3x))^x as x goes to infinity, why can't we replace 1/(3x) with 0 and just say (1+0)^inf? The answer is "we have to be careful" because we will get the indeterminate form of 1^inf here. This limit question is from Reddit r/calculus.
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Original post https://www.reddit.com/r/calculus/s/ZpwsH9bBwp
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